Friday, April 23, 2010
Capitalism is a particular economic model, an organizational mode or structure of production, which is not in and of itself the same thing as the comparably general meta-concept of a "free market". Further, the codification or standardization of this organizational mode at the legal level makes it a particular legal code (a legal code entrenching particular arrangements of ownership titles), which is not in and of itself the same thing as the comparably general meta-concept of "libertarian law". When certain left-libertarians say that they are opposed to capitalism in substance, they are opposing this particular organizational mode and legal code, not necessarily the meta-level of free markets and libertarian law. It is conceivable for one to oppose this without supporting proactive aggression.This is part of the reason why Stephan Kinsella and others are not justified in dismissing substantive opponents of capitalism as necessarily being outside of the scope of libertarianism. The only way that this can be gotten away with is by conflating the general with the particular, I.E. putting forward something rather specific as if it was the essential component of a much more general concept. This presents people with a convoluted framing of the discourse in which there is a false set of choices between accepting the economic and legal organizational scheme that is "capitalism" and not being a libertarian. But that just begs the question as to whether or not these particular modes are necessarily logically implied by the meta-level concepts or even alone the one and only compatible implication of them.
Of course, the substance of the meta-level concepts and the relationship or ordering of such concepts could be in question as well. It is not exactly clear why the meta-concept of "liberty" necessarily has to be defined through the lens of ownership, rather than the other way around. It is not clear why there could not possibly be some tension between strong and absolutist notions of land ownership and the meta-concept of liberty. It isn't clear why non-aggression necessarily must be conceived of as an axoim or a categorical imperative that isn't a bit fuzzy. It isn't clear why a systematic application of non-proviso lockean property norms could not be called into question on consequentialist grounds, as not leading to the intended result of a genuinely free society. Nor is it clear why such political ideals are realizable in an inegalitarian cultural context.
These are the kind of begged questions that are glossed over or in which certain answers are taken for granted and treated as essential parts of the definition of meta-concepts. What sense does it make to act as if Murray Rothbard's particular formulation of property theory is essential to the general notion of political freedom? It isn't. It's a particular disambiguation that libertarians may or may not fully accept. If such a property theory represents "capitalism", and one has reason to be skeptical of such a property theory while also aiming at the general goal of political freedom and a stateless society, one could conceivably reject "capitalism" as a libertarian. One could believe that it devolves into a state in spite of the intentions of its proponents, or that it contains ambiguity that can be used to justify trampling on people's freedom in a certain context, and be a libertarian.
The substance of libertarianism, at a sort of meta-level, is more general than the substance of capitalism. Stephan Kinsella and his ilk will have none of this: he equates the substance of capitalism and libertarianism as constituting one and the same thing. But, once again, this is just begging the question. Why is libertarian capitalism the same thing as libertarianism in general? This seems somewhat analogous to claiming that a particular normative position is the same thing as a general meta-ethical position (such as moral realism). I don't claim that libertarian capitalism isn't libertarian, I would say that it's a form of libertarianism that I think gets it wrong. The same standard is not reciprocated, however: if I don't accept a particular form of libertarianism, I'm suddenly put outside of the general category of libertarianism.
On top of this, quite paradoxically, we are told (particularly by Walter Block and those mimicking his notion of "the plumbline") that libertarianism in general is neutral to preferences, I.E. it is sold as a sort of all-inclusive relativism. This is claimed by some of the very same people that insist on particular norms as essential to libertarianism, ruling out everything to "the left" of anarcho-capitalism in terms of property norms and economic organization. The begged question is where the line is drawn between necessary norms and open-ended preference neutrality. On one hand, one could skeptically ask, "Why aren't your property norms just preferences too?". On the other hand, one could wonder if this (at least superficially) relativist proclamation is ambiguous and misleading, and ask whether there may actually be stronger, additional, or even alternative norms necessary for a particularly workable form of libertarianism to be made (even if one simultaneously still grants the term "libertarian" to people that don't accept those norms).
As we can see, those who are trying to monopolize libertarianism on the behalf of capitalism beg a whole host of questions. It begs the questions of rights theory, property theory, the thick and thin libertarianism discussion, and so on. But what seems most fair to me, in terms of the question of "who is a libertarian?", is that it is fundamentally constituted by an attitude that seeks to obtain or maximize political freedom as a meta-concept (and yes, this is distinguishable from the umbrella of welfare-liberalism). Anything beyond that is working out the details inside of libertarianism, which inevitably leads to subdivisions. One may think that particular subdivisions have it wrong and yet still acknowledge their status as libertarians. It is hard to look at the opposite route and not see it as dogmatism.
In a sense, yes, I am openly what some might call a "left-sectarian" in the sense that I philosophically reject a notable portion of the ideas of what I consider to be the general paradigm of the libertarian right (such as the ideas of folks such as Hans Hoppe, Walter Block, Stephan Kinsella, and even Murray Rothbard) and I do not particularly buy into the claims made by some such people that they are really in a neutral zone with respect to "left" and "right" ideological trends (when the virulently anti-leftist fangs come out, "plumbline" claims are particularly misleading). At the same time, I view libertarianism in the most general sense to be an umbrella that includes these people and their ideas, and that in spite of some rather strong disagreements there still are internal libertarians relations of a sort. But the substance of ideas is more fundamental than general labels, so I'm content reciprocally considering them ideological enemies *inside of libertarianism* to the extent that we disagree on fundamental points and when I am systematically attacked on the basis of prejudice by the people in such a paradigm. Yes, I do oppose (at least part of) the substance of your position, and I oppose it precisely because I think libertarianism could be improved.
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